It would be great if someone could help give a detailed answer to this question. I was asked this question by someone today, and i did not know the answer. I am curious to know what it is in detail. the Question is; Lucy had her left ovary and right uterine tube removed when she was seventeen, due to a cyst in the former and a tumor in the latter. Now at 32, Lucy is perfectly healthy and is expecting her second child. Describe how it is possible for Lucy to conceive children, with only a right ovary and a left uterine tube(located on opposite sides of the pelvic cavity). Please i would really appreciate an answer to this question. Thank You

OK, I was waiting for an expert answer myself, but since no one has added their voice to this one, I thought I'd give it a shot.

My best guess is that the egg traversed over to the opposing fallopian tube. There is actually a bit of a gap between teh fallopian tube and ovary anyway that eggs normally have to cross. Sometimes they don't make it and end up in the abdomen. Thus, I supose it is possible that an egg makes it the long way around.

Otherwise, if this is a trick question, maybe the surgeon at the time of the oriignal operation moved the ovary. Or perhaps fertility drugs were used to boost the chances of fertilization, but I would be concerned of ectopic pregnancy with all those eggs floating around.

Just my best guess.

Another possible answer is that before the removal of the ovary some eggs were already in the pelvic cavity. They could be there for quite a long time. I presume that that could be the case. They were there and were fertilized after the removal of the ovary.

Guy

i believe that the instructor that i teach reproductive biology with uses a similar question on her exams.

it may be possible that the egg move throught the pelvic cavity to the opposing fallopian tube---i will check my texts and post the answer. yet it seems like this would be highly unlikely and the chance for an ectopic pregnancy would be increased...

In vitro fertilization or adoption would be my answers.

In the female reproductive system, the fimbria (plural, fimbriae) is a fringe of tissue around the ostium of the Fallopian tube, in the direction of the ovary. An ovary is not directly connected to its adjacent Fallopian tube. When ovulation is about to occur, the sex hormones activate the fimbriae, causing it to hit the ovary in a gentle, sweeping motion. An oocyte is released from the ovary into the peritoneal cavity and the cilia of the fimbriae sweep the ovum into the Fallopian tube. Not all fimbriae, but only the ovarian fimbria is long enough to reach to ovary. In this hypothetical case, it was long enough to reach, thereby allowing her to be able to get pregnant.

Yes I agree 100% with Carrie Ann, this is the upper most possibility to be pregnancy.

When you remove a fallopian tube, its opening to the uterus is not blocked unless you actually block it or close it using sutures. The ovaries are not placed so close to each other and so the fimbriae might most probably not reach the opposite ovary in order to recieve the egg. my guess is that the egg emerges out of the ovary and finds its way to the uterus opening left due to the cut fallopian tube. the chances are low but it is the closest possibility. Also we can take into consideration that the ovary might descend closer to the uterus and the point of emergence of the egg from the ovary might be through the lower surface rather than the upper surface. There might be a chemical released by the uterus or the fallopian tube that helps in the thinning of the ovarian wall.